Negar Rahbar Posted July 3, 2020 Report Share Posted July 3, 2020 Hi everyone, I faced this problem in an old book (Hall Allen S., Theory and Problems of Machine Design; 1961) the answer is according to the book 592 [in.lb] but I think the bending moment should be 0 because there is no constraints. Could anybody help me to understand this? (the photo is attached) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrD Posted July 6, 2020 Report Share Posted July 6, 2020 Dear Sir, I have posted a solution for this problem over at my blog, Mechanics Corner. Please take a look at that and see if you agree. DrD Negar Rahbar 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Negar Rahbar Posted July 7, 2020 Author Report Share Posted July 7, 2020 Dear Sir, I've just read your solution and I am amazed by the comprehensive explanation. That's a big help for me and I am very thankful. As you suggested, I'd be still trying to figure out the reason for the difference in the final results. I had already posted this question also in https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/36539/bending-moment-when-there-are-no-constraints/. May I post your solution there? (of course with reference and the link to your blog) thank you so much sincerely, Negar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DrD Posted July 11, 2020 Report Share Posted July 11, 2020 Dear Negar, Sure, you can re-post the solution anywhere you want with the proper citation. I would appreciate it if you would post a comment on the blog regarding the solution. I think it helps encourage others to read the blog if they see that someone has already left a comment. DrD Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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